A little constrained flow

 Frome Zero Hedge.  But the graph does a ratio. In fact,  inflation changes as the value of growth, and growth changes as the value of inflation. They have a sweet spot, the knee of the curve where the second derivative is maximum.
Goldman Sachs did this? It should be a two sided Black-Scholes.  How much liquidity to they assume? Did they do a Skellam distribution? Mysteries abound, Do a dimensional analysis. Time drops out in the ratio, then percent=x/100, the 100 drops out. The ratio is the one period value. The hyperbolic is growth^2 - inflation^2 = adaption energy.  Inflation is the cost of  maintaing volatile inventories.



I am the amateur. But, you can bet that this graph becomes a probem set in Econ 101 next year.

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