Here we go. I decode this using the theory of everything.
First, why do they have Pi^4? Well that means they are integrating all the little bubbles, all of whom seem to be operating at hyperbolic angle 3*ln(phi), where the sinh and cosh should have pi^2 in it. So the hyperbolic conditions cosh^2 -sinh^2=1 will have Pi^4.
Why the imaginary number? because they use Newton's calculus which says Pi is always known, but the sin and cos Taylor series do not converge in sync, so Newton's grammar needs to include things that have not yet happened.
So this diagram is integrating over all the 10^15 little three-bubble exchanges of the vacuum that make up the electron. Under the TOE, we know the mix ov events happening at 3*ln(phi), because an adapted process is a connected system, and Nyquist tells us events are maximally divergent and e, Eulers number, is well approximated as precision os distributed over the notches on the X axis.
Hence, Pa to Pb must be the projection out two transactions such that a single transaction samples twice. Same with Pc and Pd. so we get:
cosh(3*ln(phi))^2 - sinh(3*ln(phi)) = 1
By using the TOE we eliminate that pesky time thing. Now what about those bubbles outside the electron? Why quant three? That is the first perturbation I guess, and all these perturbations are happening as the pass where tanh and tanh' are both equal. At that point the little bubbles can try and hop the hump. Combinations are maximum and that is where Whythoff winers and losers are determined.
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